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Re: Interesting case

 
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Re: Interesting case - February 9, 2005 7:09:00 AM   
UTDC

 

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>Jeff, if that's the theory you'd assume - well, what diagnostic test do you do to verify your guess?>

SJ,
I agree that MRI would be the diagnostic tool of choice. Obvously, an orthopedic referral would be necessary.

Jeff


Greg,
Certianly any of the lesions on your DDX list could be the culprit. I picked GCT because of the appearance, location, age and gender of the patient were all consistent with such. An osteoid osteoma, although a possibility is unlikely due to the appearence and age of the patient. However, how often do patient's present with the textbook presentation?

That being said, I don't think it matters much. Whatever this lesion is, I think that it is sufficient for the DC or PT to recognize it's presence and make the appropriate referral.


Jeff

(in reply to Alex Brenner PT MPT OCS)
Post #: 41
Re: Interesting case - February 12, 2005 8:54:00 PM   
InOrbit

 

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Joined: September 15, 2003
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I was wondering if you can suggest an FNAC or biopsy to confirm the type of tumor after a systems review to support radiological evidence.

My 2 cents.

(in reply to Alex Brenner PT MPT OCS)
Post #: 42
Re: Interesting case - February 13, 2005 9:18:00 PM   
Alex Brenner PT MPT OCS

 

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From: Kentucky
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An MRI was conducted and the pathology was determined to be an osteoid osteoma, a benign tumor by the radiologist. This particular lesion was found to have caused some cortical weakening of the bone and therefore helped cause the pathological fracture. The patient was seen by an orthopaedic surgeon in the states and his disposition is unkown at this time.

Good job Greg, Jeep, UTDC, JMA and Doug who correctly identified this as a pathologic fracture.

_____________________________

Alex Brenner, PT, MPT, OCS

(in reply to Alex Brenner PT MPT OCS)
Post #: 43
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